How can the sons of Joseph and Asenath be considered Jews as the offspring of a marriage requires the female to be Jewish to pass on the Jewish line? It appears that since Asenath was an Egyptian the children would also have to be considered Egyptians according to the law. Was this overlooked by the Old Testament writers?
How can the sons of Joseph and Asenath be considered Jews as the offspring of a marriage requires the female to be Jewish to pass on the Jewish line? It appears that since Asenath was an Egyptian the children would also have to be considered Egyptians according to the law. Was this overlooked by the Old Testament writers?